Hello,
My head is spinning from all the parts of this one. I'm using BibleHub and they parsed tetagmenoi as:
verb - perfect participle middle or passive - nominative masculine plural (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/acts/13-48.htm)
I'm stuck on a few places. I'm trying to identify the type of participle. Is it "causal"? The phrase does not have "because" or "since" as part of the translation. Is tetagmenoi describing "believed/episteusan"? But then I see nominative masculine plural and I'm thinking that it describes "gentiles". But if that's the case, wouldn't it be parsed as "substantive" instead? I'm getting really confused!
(I'm trying to follow this chart https://www.ntgreek.org/pdf/adverbial_participles.pdf and this page https://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/participles.htm .)
Some other thoughts... since it is in perfect tense, then this would indicate a "continuation and present state of a completed past action" (https://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/verbs1.htm). But Wallace doesn't even approach the issue from this point of view. Instead, he focuses on the middle voice (https://bible.org/question/how-does-...predestination). So am I mistaken in looking at the type of participle as opposed to looking at the voice? Even if I looked at that, I was thinking that for middle voice to be true, that would mean that the gentiles heard the gospel and then believed by appointing themselves to eternal life. I think I got the wording right... which would mean the context doesn't fit. Therefore, not middle voice?
While this is fun, it's also very frustrating! lol
My head is spinning from all the parts of this one. I'm using BibleHub and they parsed tetagmenoi as:
verb - perfect participle middle or passive - nominative masculine plural (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/acts/13-48.htm)
I'm stuck on a few places. I'm trying to identify the type of participle. Is it "causal"? The phrase does not have "because" or "since" as part of the translation. Is tetagmenoi describing "believed/episteusan"? But then I see nominative masculine plural and I'm thinking that it describes "gentiles". But if that's the case, wouldn't it be parsed as "substantive" instead? I'm getting really confused!
(I'm trying to follow this chart https://www.ntgreek.org/pdf/adverbial_participles.pdf and this page https://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/participles.htm .)
Some other thoughts... since it is in perfect tense, then this would indicate a "continuation and present state of a completed past action" (https://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/verbs1.htm). But Wallace doesn't even approach the issue from this point of view. Instead, he focuses on the middle voice (https://bible.org/question/how-does-...predestination). So am I mistaken in looking at the type of participle as opposed to looking at the voice? Even if I looked at that, I was thinking that for middle voice to be true, that would mean that the gentiles heard the gospel and then believed by appointing themselves to eternal life. I think I got the wording right... which would mean the context doesn't fit. Therefore, not middle voice?
While this is fun, it's also very frustrating! lol
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