The United States was formed on the basis that all rights are initially held by the people but that their rights may be yielded to the government for the common good. The US government was granted permission to form and support a navy ... and to make gold and silver coin ... as specific examples. The US government was also granted sole power to make treaties with other countries.
The permission for the government to use firearms thus comes as an extension of the natural right of people. The government does not have any authority or power beyond what was permissible to the general population. Thus, the effort to limit firearms by the US government represents an abuse of power -- an inversion of the authority.
I'm not quite sure how such principles apply to the States. But the States often abuse the treaty clause by making their own agreements with other countries. And the States may be obligated to the same delegation of rights... that the powers to the State come first from rights held by the people.
Any thoughts?
The permission for the government to use firearms thus comes as an extension of the natural right of people. The government does not have any authority or power beyond what was permissible to the general population. Thus, the effort to limit firearms by the US government represents an abuse of power -- an inversion of the authority.
I'm not quite sure how such principles apply to the States. But the States often abuse the treaty clause by making their own agreements with other countries. And the States may be obligated to the same delegation of rights... that the powers to the State come first from rights held by the people.
Any thoughts?
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