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Thread: Why prophecy can't be taken literally

  1. #21
    tWebber eschaton's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by seanD View Post
    Okay, well, then I guess I'm done. I suspect I misunderstood what you were saying in the OP, but I'm not clear what exactly you're arguing. My position is that prophecy is not allegory. Allegory is fictional. Prophecy is about real future events yet to come. Sometimes real events might also represent or reflect a future event, so in that sense I guess you call it "allegorical," but that isn't typically how I see an allegorical biblical story.


    Typology (19th century)
    2. the study and interpretation of types and symbols, originally especially in the Bible.

    My position is that prophecy is given in allegorical language, although I use the same definition for the word allegory (metaphoric but not necessarily fictional) that was used in earlier times (like Paul) so you're right about that.

    You say that prophecy isn't an allegory, but I haven't seen an example. Tell me when this literal prophecy was fulfilled.

    Isa 60:16 Thou shalt also suck the milk of the Gentiles, and shalt suck the breast of kings: and thou shalt know that I the Lord am thy Saviour and thy Redeemer, the mighty One of Jacob.
    Whenever it was it wasn't a pretty sight.

  2. #22
    tWebber Rushing Jaws's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by eschaton View Post
    The Greek word.
    allégoreó: to speak allegorically
    Original Word: ἀλληγορέω
    Part of Speech: Verb
    Transliteration: allégoreó
    Phonetic Spelling: (al-lay-gor-eh'-o)
    Definition: to speak allegorically
    Usage: I speak allegorically.

    The meaning of allegory has changed in the last few hundred years. Some definitions would agree with you, but not all. Types were part of allegory in the ancient world as you can see from Paul's usage. They became divided about the 18th century. Why does the Bible say that prophecies are not literal as I have repeatedly pointed out?



    Even if I give you partial credit for Isaiah 53, we still have to deal with Jeremiah 25 and Isaiah 23 which you said were absolutely literally fulfilled. The Pulpit commentary shows otherwise. Remember that premillennialism says that all OT prophecies should be presumed literal. We're having trouble finding one.
    The predictions of the fall of Jerusalem to Nebuchadnezzar in Ezekiel and Jeremiah seem to qualify - X was prophesied, X took place.
    And sometimes, X was prophesied, and Not-X took place. But that is a different issue. As is premillennialism.
    STM this discussion has been confused by the use of the word “literal” - one suspects it is being used in different senses by different people.
    Last edited by Rushing Jaws; 05-21-2020 at 01:53 PM.

  3. #23
    tWebber eschaton's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rushing Jaws View Post
    The predictions of the fall of Jerusalem to Nebuchadnezzar in Ezekiel and Jeremiah seem to qualify - X was prophesied, X took place.
    And sometimes, X was prophesied, and Not-X took place. But that is a different issue. As is premillennialism.
    STM this discussion has been confused by the use of the word “literal” - one suspects it is being used in different senses by different people.
    In post #9 I gave the definition of literal that I was going by and seadD didn't dispute it. In post #11 I took a look at X and concluded that X didn't occur in a literal way, and that wasn't disputed either.

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