The base definition provided by Lidell for μετανοεω does not give any hint of remorse or regret
Theological dictionaries generally seem to add "remorse" and "regret" to the base definition.
which seems to be conflating μετανοεω with μεταμελομαι (this being what Judas exhibited after betraying Christ)
Does the Church of Rome also make no distinction between the two, or is this a Protestant view?
Theological dictionaries generally seem to add "remorse" and "regret" to the base definition.
which seems to be conflating μετανοεω with μεταμελομαι (this being what Judas exhibited after betraying Christ)
Does the Church of Rome also make no distinction between the two, or is this a Protestant view?
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