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There are a few ongoing threads on righteousness. I was asked and thought it appropiate to try to bring it all under one heading for the better sorting out what perhaps the real obstacles to our understanding are. I hope we can leave "tulip" in the garden where it belongs and be object in this. Lets try to be clear as we express ourselves and take advantage of the this platform to do so, searching the scriptures accurately to support what we believe. I believe, and use as rule, all scripture must reconcile with itself. When we are inclined to say: "It's a mystery" know that you are in trouble when trying to connect the dots. They, aside from the book of Revelations, can be connected with little difficulty provided agenda doesn't get in the way.
I open with this I previously posted in another thread:
What needs to be rectified in our thinking is that man, intoto, is NOT total depraved. He is, however, incapable of saving himself unto salvation with God eternally. But he is totally capable of following instructions dicated to him by the law of his created independent conscience. That ability was never was taken from him; just now made more difficult because his sensibilities have been altered that they now are subjected to an influence from outside himself never intended for him to take into himself. This transgression corrupted his human nature that it is now disqualified since sin can be found in it. This corrupted nature was left to do battle with an enemy who already defeated him. BUT by the fact he was doing battle would indicate clearly that there was one, revealing a conscience that could make distinctions....or else why would there ever be battle between right and wrong, good and evil? {John 1.9}
You be the Judge. What was man left with God that could still bless him in? ..and why? Compare the actions of Cain and Abel since they are earliest accounts of "fallen" human endeavor.
rm ........Happy and a prosperous discussion to all
There are a few ongoing threads on righteousness. I was asked and thought it appropiate to try to bring it all under one heading for the better sorting out what perhaps the real obstacles to our understanding are. I hope we can leave "tulip" in the garden where it belongs and be object in this. Lets try to be clear as we express ourselves and take advantage of the this platform to do so, searching the scriptures accurately to support what we believe. I believe, and use as rule, all scripture must reconcile with itself. When we are inclined to say: "It's a mystery" know that you are in trouble when trying to connect the dots. They, aside from the book of Revelations, can be connected with little difficulty provided agenda doesn't get in the way.
I open with this I previously posted in another thread:
What needs to be rectified in our thinking is that man, intoto, is NOT total depraved. He is, however, incapable of saving himself unto salvation with God eternally. But he is totally capable of following instructions dicated to him by the law of his created independent conscience. That ability was never was taken from him; just now made more difficult because his sensibilities have been altered that they now are subjected to an influence from outside himself never intended for him to take into himself. This transgression corrupted his human nature that it is now disqualified since sin can be found in it. This corrupted nature was left to do battle with an enemy who already defeated him. BUT by the fact he was doing battle would indicate clearly that there was one, revealing a conscience that could make distinctions....or else why would there ever be battle between right and wrong, good and evil? {John 1.9}
You be the Judge. What was man left with God that could still bless him in? ..and why? Compare the actions of Cain and Abel since they are earliest accounts of "fallen" human endeavor.
rm ........Happy and a prosperous discussion to all
Let's start with Romans 3 and answer the question -- Is this an accurate description of each and every person relative to any innate righteousness that they might possess or to any righteousness that they might attain through the performance of certain works?
Romans 3
10 just as it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one,
11 there is no one who understands, there is no one who seeks God.
12 All have turned away, together they have become worthless; there is no one who shows kindness, not even one.”
13 “Their throats are open graves, they deceive with their tongues, the poison of asps is under their lips.”
14 “Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness.”
15 “Their feet are swift to shed blood,
16 ruin and misery are in their paths,
17 and the way of peace they have not known.”
18 “There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
If this is not an accurate description of each and every person, are there other Scriptures that provide an accurate and explicit description of people?
Let's start with Romans 3 and answer the question -- Is this an accurate description of each and every person relative to any innate righteousness that they might possess or to any righteousness that they might attain through the performance of certain works?
Romans 3
10 just as it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one,
11 there is no one who understands, there is no one who seeks God.
12 All have turned away, together they have become worthless; there is no one who shows kindness, not even one.”
13 “Their throats are open graves, they deceive with their tongues, the poison of asps is under their lips.”
14 “Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness.”
15 “Their feet are swift to shed blood,
16 ruin and misery are in their paths,
17 and the way of peace they have not known.”
18 “There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
If this is not an accurate description of each and every person, are there other Scriptures that provide an accurate and explicit description of people?
No, it is not a fair scripture to use in the sense it is mis-used and twisted for agenda's sake.. So lets see some reason why Paul is using a quote from Isaiah to support what he is meaning to get across to his listening audience.
First, those in Isaiah were getting ready to march into excile for their rebellion and disobedience so that makes a good backdrop for why Paul states what he states.. Second it should be obvious from vs. 9 he is NOT speaking of ALL humanity and their "sins", that are forgivable, but of the consequences of the ONE SIN, Adam's, that only Christ can only remove and it STAY removed. That SIN contains within it all that Paul speaks of which does condemn ALL men. All evil and sin of every kind is contained within the nature of that one sin, therefore all have sinned and require God's justification awaiting salvation/peace with God through Jesus if one lived before the cross. But now since the cross justification and salvation can be the same time because Jesus has accomplished it. "It is finished, He said" [Romans 5.1]
Let's start with Romans 3 and answer the question -- Is this an accurate description of each and every person relative to any innate righteousness that they might possess or to any righteousness that they might attain through the performance of certain works?
Romans 3
10 just as it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one,
11 there is no one who understands, there is no one who seeks God.
12 All have turned away, together they have become worthless; there is no one who shows kindness, not even one.”
13 “Their throats are open graves, they deceive with their tongues, the poison of asps is under their lips.”
14 “Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness.”
15 “Their feet are swift to shed blood,
16 ruin and misery are in their paths,
17 and the way of peace they have not known.”
18 “There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
If this is not an accurate description of each and every person, are there other Scriptures that provide an accurate and explicit description of people?
I am inclined to agree with Ormly on this one to a great extent. Men do suffer from a debilitating depravity, but total depravity... NO...
The passages posted above are true, but must be mediated and reconciled with reality and the rest of scripture. The passages above express the condition of man in relation to his creator. Try and imagine a reality where every passage posted above was literally true 24/7, 365 days a year.
There is no one who understands what? Does not even the worst among us show some evidence of kindness from time to time? Out of even the worst sinner, is every word uttered a deception? Who curses and is bitter all the time? If every man and woman was running around killing all the time, there would be no one left… All scripture must be reconciled with scripture and reality. Not being totally depraved does not result in one being righteous.
When it comes to my faith, I am neither Protestant, Catholic, Pentecostal, Baptist, Charismatic, or Christadelphian; Calvinist, nor any other denomination. I am an equal opportunity believer. I believe the bible every opportunity I get.
If you advocate it, and I can find it in the Bible: On that particular issue; that is what denomination I am. If I cannot find it, then I am some other denomination. My goal is to seek doctrinal inconsistencies and contradictions where ever I find them, and question them to death...
rhutchin
Let's start with Romans 3 and answer the question -- Is this an accurate description of each and every person relative to any innate righteousness that they might possess or to any righteousness that they might attain through the performance of certain works?
Romans 3
10 just as it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one,
11 there is no one who understands, there is no one who seeks God.
12 All have turned away, together they have become worthless; there is no one who shows kindness, not even one.”
13 “Their throats are open graves, they deceive with their tongues, the poison of asps is under their lips.”
14 “Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness.”
15 “Their feet are swift to shed blood,
16 ruin and misery are in their paths,
17 and the way of peace they have not known.”
18 “There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
If this is not an accurate description of each and every person, are there other Scriptures that provide an accurate and explicit description of people?
Ormly
No, it is not a fair scripture to use in the sense it is mis-used and twisted for agenda's sake.. So lets see some reason why Paul is using a quote from Isaiah to support what he is meaning to get across to his listening audience.
First, those in Isaiah were getting ready to march into excile for their rebellion and disobedience so that makes a good backdrop for why Paul states what he states.. Second it should be obvious from vs. 9 he is NOT speaking of ALL humanity and their "sins", that are forgivable, but of the consequences of the ONE SIN, Adam's, that only Christ can only remove and it STAY removed. That SIN contains within it all that Paul speaks of which does condemn ALL men. All evil and sin of every kind is contained within the nature of that one sin, therefore all have sinned and require God's justification awaiting salvation/peace with God through Jesus if one lived before the cross. But now since the cross justification and salvation can be the same time because Jesus has accomplished it. "It is finished, He said" [Romans 5.1]
Does that help?
rm
How about a little more info. What is the citation in Isaiah to which you are referring?
The intro from v9 is--
Romans 3
9 What then? Are we better off? Certainly not, for we have already charged that Jews and Greeks alike are all under sin,
10 just as it is written:...
How is it obvious from this verse, that "he is NOT speaking of ALL humanity and their "sins", that are forgivable, but of the consequences of the ONE SIN, Adam's, that only Christ can only remove and it STAY removed." What do you see as Paul's argument here?
Are you saying that "under sin" refers to Adam's sin? What does Paul's following citation, “There is no one righteous,..." have to do with this? You do not appear to be drawing the conclusion that Adam's sin produces this effect, so what is Paul's point in citing this passage in support of his argument?
I am inclined to agree with Ormly on this one to a great extent. Men do suffer from a debilitating depravity, but total depravity... NO...
The passages posted above are true, but must be mediated and reconciled with reality and the rest of scripture. The passages above express the condition of man in relation to his creator. Try and imagine a reality where every passage posted above was literally true 24/7, 365 days a year.
There is no one who understands what? Does not even the worst among us show some evidence of kindness from time to time? Out of even the worst sinner, is every word uttered a deception? Who curses and is bitter all the time? If every man and woman was running around killing all the time, there would be no one left… All scripture must be reconciled with scripture and reality. Not being totally depraved does not result in one being righteous.
The issue then is not whether man is depraved but the extent of that depravity. Actually, it may turn on the definition of depravity. What if we define depravity as the absence of righteousness and total depravity as the total absence of righteousness (essentially saying the same thing).
Take your question, Does not even the worst among us show some evidence of kindness from time to time? Even Christ said that parents know how to give good gifts to their children. Yet, would not such righteousness still be as filthy rags and not really kindness at all except under the leniency of human understanding? Do we humans truly perceive reality or only that reality that we want to see?
The issue then is not whether man is depraved but the extent of that depravity. Actually, it may turn on the definition of depravity. What if we define depravity as the absence of righteousness and total depravity as the total absence of righteousness (essentially saying the same thing).
Take your question, Does not even the worst among us show some evidence of kindness from time to time? Even Christ said that parents know how to give good gifts to their children. Yet, would not such righteousness still be as filthy rags and not really kindness at all except under the leniency of human understanding? Do we humans truly perceive reality or only that reality that we want to see?
It is only "filthy rags" as it applies to atonement. We ALL [no pun intended] know that we can't save ourselves so lets get off that issue so no one accuses the other some heresy. BUT man, before Jesus' finished work on the cross could be justified by his own faith in [a] God unto a righteousness that set him aside from damnation awaiting the day of his resurrection by Jesus..That was the first resurrection which brings us back to the question of man's awareness and capabilities unto righteousness.
The extent of man's depravity, as I see it, can be compared to his rejection of the reality of God, whether he be a native S.A. Indian or a Greek-Hebrew, "Marcus Borg" intellect. Makes sense?
The extent of man's depravity, as I see it, can be compared to his rejection of the reality of God, whether he be a native S.A. Indian or a Greek-Hebrew, "Marcus Borg" intellect. Makes sense?
rm
Not just the rejection of the reality of God, but the rejection of God. God requires that one actively acknowledge Him and obey His laws. One may be depraved in the natural sense by doing really weird things, but to be depraved in the Scriptural sense relates to the rejection of God even if that rejection is characterized by indifference as opposed to outright hostility. Maybe Total Depravity is the contrived acceptance of God in order to take advantage of others and satisfy one's selfish desires (e.g., those who cry, Lord, Lord,... at the judgment).
Are some people still refusing to accept that the theological definition of the term depravity is not to be found in a Merriam-Webster dictionary, and that conflating the common or garden use of the term - indicating extreme negative moral behaviour - with the theological term - meaning debased, or corrupted, as a pure chemical or a computer programme might be, and which will lead to bad behaviour of various kinds - is just argument from outrage?
AD 529. Hopefully that is far enough back to avoid falling into the Arminian/Calvinist controversy, but certainly it is a text that Classic Jacobite/Weslyan Arminians would accept, as well as Calvinists, on the effects of sin, and loss of righteousness before God. Obviously for 'baptismal regeneration' one needs to read 'Spiritual regenration', but the learned can make that mental change, I am sure.
AD 529. Hopefully that is far enough back to avoid falling into the Arminian/Calvinist controversy, but certainly it is a text that Classic Jacobite/Weslyan Arminians would accept, as well as Calvinists, on the effects of sin, and loss of righteousness before God. Obviously for 'baptismal regeneration' one needs to read 'Spiritual regenration', but the learned can make that mental change, I am sure.
Thanks for posting that, Solly. I often wondered what it was people were accusing me of and what I actually believed. I see now there is quite a difference that reinforces me in my walk.
It must be kept in mind with any of these councils that they are not the gospel but a result of man searching the gospels [hopefully without agenda] from which he draws his conclusions. Never should these councils be looked upon as the inspired word of God as the Reformed and the RCC have been want to do.
It must be kept in mind with any of these councils that they are not the gospel but a result of man searching the gospels [hopefully without agenda] from which he draws his conclusions. Never should these councils be looked upon as the inspired word of God as the Reformed and the RCC have been want to do.
that goes without saying; but the level of thought that has gone into this document far outweighs a TWeb thread, you'll have to admit. I am all for hearing what those who have gone before have discovered in God's word, and how it should be used.
[quote]Thanks for posting that, Solly. I often wondered what it was people were accusing me of and what I actually believed. I see now there is quite a difference that reinforces me in my walk.
As long as you are not falling for Pelagianism, then there is hope for you yet. If there was another word that could stand duty for 'depravity' then I would use it, if we agreed on what it meant. I still think there is more heat than light in this, because of the way the word is used today.
If you accept that sin has affected every part of our being - body, mind and soul; intellective, affective, and volitional; if you accept that we have no rightousness before God; if you accept that sin is rebellion, and we are all rebels against God; if you accept that a spiritual work from God is required before one turns to Christ and believes - be it prevenient or efficacious - then we are singing from the same hymn sheet.
is God pleased with the actions of unbelievers? Not in the way he is pleased with those in Christ. They may further his plans, they may accord with his will, but not for the right reasons. Open the door of the argument which says a human being can in themselves do something that pleases God, and you are on your way out of Biblical Christianity. The issue is not whether humans can act morally, even in accord with the revelation of God's law in the bible, but why they do it. The doctrine of Total Depravity says no one seeks to please God, whatever kind of life they are living, until God turns them to him.
Another historical document:
Notice how I am avoiding explicit Calvinistic documents.
AD 529. Hopefully that is far enough back to avoid falling into the Arminian/Calvinist controversy, but certainly it is a text that Classic Jacobite/Weslyan Arminians would accept, as well as Calvinists, on the effects of sin, and loss of righteousness before God. Obviously for 'baptismal regeneration' one needs to read 'Spiritual regenration', but the learned can make that mental change, I am sure.
Thanks for posting that, Solly. I often wondered what it was people were accusing me of and what I actually believed. I see now there is quite a difference that reinforces me in my walk.
It must be kept in mind with any of these councils that they are not the gospel but a result of man searching the gospels [hopefully without agenda] from which he draws his conclusions. Never should these councils be looked upon as the inspired word of God as the Reformed and the RCC have been want to do.
rm
Your earlier statement was--
What needs to be rectified in our thinking is that man, intoto, is NOT total depraved. He is, however, incapable of saving himself unto salvation with God eternally. But he is totally capable of following instructions dicated to him by the law of his created independent conscience. That ability was never was taken from him; just now made more difficult because his sensibilities have been altered that they now are subjected to an influence from outside himself never intended for him to take into himself. This transgression corrupted his human nature that it is now disqualified since sin can be found in it. This corrupted nature was left to do battle with an enemy who already defeated him. BUT by the fact he was doing battle would indicate clearly that there was one, revealing a conscience that could make distinctions....or else why would there ever be battle between right and wrong, good and evil? {John 1.9}
Would you modify that position based on what Solly has presented?
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