Announcement

Collapse

JW - Watchtower Society Guidelines

Theists only.

Knock, Knock!

This forum is a debate area to discuss issues pertaining to the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society (the Jehovah's Witnesses). This forum is generally for theists only, and is not the area for debate between atheists and theists. Non-theist may not post here without first obtaining permission from the moderator of this forum. Granting of such permission is subject to Moderator discretion - and may be revoked if the Moderator feels that the poster is not keeping with the spirit of the World Regligions Department.


Atheists are welcome to discuss and debate these issues in the Apologetics 301 forum without such restrictions.

Forum Rules: [urlhttp://theologyweb.com/campus/help#theologywebfaq/theologywebdecorum]Here[/url]
See more
See less

Matthew 11:12

Collapse
X
 
  • Filter
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts

  • Matthew 11:12

    Why do Jehovah's Witnesses translate this verse so differently? I have talked to Jehovah's Witnesses and they gave me a copy of their Bible. Reading in Matthew I came across the following:

    biblehub.com/matthew/11-12.htm


    http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bi.../11/#v40011012

    Why eliminate the references to violence?

    I have read from reading amazon reviews of the NWT that according to JWs, the translators use Biblical Criticism when interpreting how to translate a passage. I also read in the secion of the Bible dealing with how the translators translated it that some passages are misleading if rendered literally, but isn't it dishonest to pre-emtively decide a translation could be misleading? I mean, they might be right, but it might only seem misleading but actually be correct and just conflict with JW doctrine, right? How do you decide whether the passage would be misleading if translated literally, or if in actuality it conflicts with JW doctrine? This is also a general apologetics question because I have heard some similar charges brought against the NIV: for instance by Paul Tobin of "The Rejection of Pascal's Wager," and "Ebonmusings," when they talk about the NIV.


    -Heero

  • #2
    The word (third person singular) translated "suffereth violence" is being translated "which men press" (as if third person plural, which it is not) and the word (which is in the plural) translated "the violent" is being translated "those pressing." (v.12)
    . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

    . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

    Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

    Comment


    • #3
      Keep in mind that the New World is, as your post implied, based upon the doctrine of the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society. If there are verses that disagree with those doctrines they are translated to avoid that conflict. John 1:1 is the classic example. I am not sure why they make the translation (or adaptation) you refer to.
      Micah 6:8 He has told you, O man, what is good; and what does the LORD require of you but to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with your God?

      Comment

      widgetinstance 221 (Related Threads) skipped due to lack of content & hide_module_if_empty option.
      Working...
      X