The only claims that I have seen are based on the fact that an idiomatic usage of "three days" covers a term >24 hours (provided that the count has a full day in it) to <=72 hours. The bare assertion is then made that in idiomatic usage, "3 days and 3 nights" = "3 days"
Then you have the claim that the disciples, when they were speaking to Jesus, say "it is now three days since these things happened" and they count Friday, Saturday, Sunday: see, three days.
I'm still trying to track down which language says "1 day since something happened" meaning "it happened this same day"
Then you have the claim that the disciples, when they were speaking to Jesus, say "it is now three days since these things happened" and they count Friday, Saturday, Sunday: see, three days.
I'm still trying to track down which language says "1 day since something happened" meaning "it happened this same day"
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