So I've been in a conversation in another thread in regards to the laws in the Old Testament using stoning as a punishment for breaking the moral laws in the Old Testament. My view on this was that the stoning was a legal law that was applied to a moral law but the challenge has been made that the stoning was part of the moral law and divine law. I'm looking for clarification on this and what reasons people have for their points of view.
In regards to the OT we have as an example:
Lev 20:10
And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.
In the new testament we have the situation where the Pharisee's confront Jesus with an adulterous women and his then his response.
John 8:3 to 8:11
The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in adultery. They made her stand before the group and said to Jesus, “Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery. In the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. Now what do you say?” They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, “Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her.” Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground. At this, those who heard began to go away one at a time, the older ones first, until only Jesus was left, with the woman still standing there. Jesus straightened up and asked her, “Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?” “No one, sir,” she said. “Then neither do I condemn you,” Jesus declared. “Go now and leave your life of sin.”
So what does this mean for Christians exactly?
Do we still advocate stoning people for breaking moral laws?
Was it overturned by Jesus in the NT?
The thread in question where this topic arose was this one:
http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/sh...arents!/page13
Discussion between Paprika and I to start off with and then Darth Executor and Seer make contributions too.
In regards to the OT we have as an example:
Lev 20:10
And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.
In the new testament we have the situation where the Pharisee's confront Jesus with an adulterous women and his then his response.
John 8:3 to 8:11
The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in adultery. They made her stand before the group and said to Jesus, “Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery. In the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. Now what do you say?” They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, “Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her.” Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground. At this, those who heard began to go away one at a time, the older ones first, until only Jesus was left, with the woman still standing there. Jesus straightened up and asked her, “Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?” “No one, sir,” she said. “Then neither do I condemn you,” Jesus declared. “Go now and leave your life of sin.”
So what does this mean for Christians exactly?
Do we still advocate stoning people for breaking moral laws?
Was it overturned by Jesus in the NT?
The thread in question where this topic arose was this one:
http://www.theologyweb.com/campus/sh...arents!/page13
Discussion between Paprika and I to start off with and then Darth Executor and Seer make contributions too.
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