Hey guys, I have some questions about manuscript evidence. I know we don't have the original anymore (same with all ancient text) but from my gather research what I found is our English bibles translated straight back to Greek copies. We have about 5,686 copies right now in the Greek. So it's pretty close to the original.
The reason I brought this up is because a lot of skeptic assumes our English bible was translated from another translation of an translation, so much that our bible became corrupted. Pretty much like the telephone analogy. I don't think it's an accurate depiction of the bible. That said, do you agree that our bibles go back to the Greek copies? What about the KJV and the NIV? Which copy they they used? Thanks for answering.
The reason I brought this up is because a lot of skeptic assumes our English bible was translated from another translation of an translation, so much that our bible became corrupted. Pretty much like the telephone analogy. I don't think it's an accurate depiction of the bible. That said, do you agree that our bibles go back to the Greek copies? What about the KJV and the NIV? Which copy they they used? Thanks for answering.
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