These discussion questions are prompted by one of my recent Bible readings, from Colossians 2:20-23:
What exactly does Paul have in view in this passage regarding "fleshly indulgence". Is it simply synonymous for sinful or does it have a different meaning? It sounds like there were practices being proscribed to fight against "fleshly indulgence" that didn't work. So what could these practices have been that Paul stated were useless? Kinda reminds me of the Jewish hedge, where you put a hedge around the law to avoid getting even close to breaking the law.
And does this have any parallels today?
20 If you have died with Christ to the elementary principles of the world, why, as if you were living in the world, do you submit yourself to decrees, such as, 21 “Do not handle, do not taste, do not touch!” 22 (which all refer to things destined to perish with use)—in accordance with the commandments and teachings of men? 23 These are matters which have, to be sure, the appearance of wisdom in self-made religion and self-abasement and severe treatment of the body, but are of no value against fleshly indulgence.
What exactly does Paul have in view in this passage regarding "fleshly indulgence". Is it simply synonymous for sinful or does it have a different meaning? It sounds like there were practices being proscribed to fight against "fleshly indulgence" that didn't work. So what could these practices have been that Paul stated were useless? Kinda reminds me of the Jewish hedge, where you put a hedge around the law to avoid getting even close to breaking the law.
And does this have any parallels today?
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