Just posted the next installment. Here are select portions; I'm leaving out the material I posted above on Ecclesiastes, and reprints of older articles I used within the text,
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What's in a Word
A Survey of the Temper Tantrums of Hector Avalos: Translations
James Patrick Holding
In this chapter Avalos pursues the thesis that Bible translators maintain the relevance of the Bible "by using translation to hide and distort the original meaning of the text in order to provide the illusion that the information and values conveyed by biblical authors are compatible with the modern world" and that translators also do this work "by distorting and even erasing what is said in the original languages." [37]
The charge has two portions which concern us. The first has to do with relevance, which we have discussed in the Introduction and found to be a case of Avalos causing his own problems. The second charge has to do with the claims of distortion. Of course it is not impossible that distortions happen; my example of the pastor mumming over foreskins serves well as an example. On the other hand, the act of translation inevitably involves honest compromises which only demagogues would say are distortions. The example I like to use is of a Disney poster from the early period of film which featured Mickey Mouse playing a musical instrument, with the banner statement ALWAYS GAY. If this banner were translated for modern audiences, it would no doubt read ALWAYS CHEERFUL or something similar. Yet one can readily imagine activists claiming that there was a conspiracy to hide Mickey's latest homosexuality.
Are the nature of the cases Avalos provides true distortions, or honest attempts to make a text intelligible for a reader in a different setting? We will show that in all cases, Avalos is either out of date on the relevant scholarship or else fails to account for the data competently. Is he in turn "distorting" things? The reader can decide that for themselves without any further help.
38-39: I have no comment on this section, but some words by Dr. West are of relevance:
In the first chapter Hector sets about seeking to prove that the Bible only survives because it has been, and continues to be translated and mistranslated. Evidently Hector believes that if the Bible were no longer translated it would come to a timely end. Oddly, to prove his point, he cites a Spanish translation theorist whose work he (Hector) translates into English.
Apparently, translation is only a bad thing when it comes to the Bible as Spanish translation theorists are fair game for the translator’s art.
The underlying principles with which Avalos is working are beginning to surface. In fact, the entire first part of the book is the unfolding (or I might say unravelling) of his presumption.
First, methodological tools are good - unless applied to the Bible, and then they are bad. Hence, it isn’t the tool that is used or misused or improperly applied that Hector has problems with but the Bible and only the Bible. Part One then, of The End of Biblical Studies shouldn’t be titled How Subdisciplines Conceal Biblical Irrelevance but How I (Hector Avalos) Conceal My Contempt for the Biblical Text and its Students With The Pretence of Methodological Critique. What Hector evidently fails to understand is that the methods he denounces as applied to the biblical text do not intend to conceal but to reveal. It is only because of his a priori disdain for biblical studies that Avalos sees it in the reverse.
43-45 Avalos' first two informational charges may be dealt with together, and they represent old news to us. Avalos charges translators with fraud in evading the "polytheistic nature" of
Deuteronomy 32:8-9 and
Gen. 1:1.
Regrettably, Avalos shows himself far behind on the scholarship if this issue. I have kept at the forefront of it because of Mormon use of the same passages. To the end of proving Avalos behind the times, I here offer the linked article above again with added notes in bold for reference to Avalos. (I then reprint
http://www.tektonics.org/lp/monoelohim.html -- I'll post some points with notes to Avalos.)
....indicates a multiplicity. In writing against Mattill I noted that his charge was refuted by the fact that Elohim, though a plural form, was paired with verbs in the singular (Avalos admits this -- 45 -- though resorts to the expdient that "it is also possible editors changed plural verbs to singular verbs" which will prove rather amusing when he later in this chapter refuses to acknowledge scribal error as an answer because we lack the originals) -- thus indicating not a multiplicity of beings, but a multiplicity of power or majesty....
....And David makes the selfsame open avowal of the plural gods of Israel: "Israel, whom gods [elohim] went [plural: balk-u] to redeem ... from the nations and their gods [elohim]" (2 Sam. vii, 23). Avalos uses this one as well, claiming it is evidence of "residual polytheism" -- 45)
Thus Avalos has much in the way of gall to claim "distortion" by translators regarding this issue. He is clearly unaware of (or hiding) the above points. Indeed, that he is hiding them seems more likely, for in an endnote [61] he mentions a similar idea by Heiser, which he fails to respond to except by hinting that Heiser has redefined monotheism so that "lesser" gods can exist. But this is once again an obfuscation in terms of what elohim means and whether it ought to be equated with the word god in the sense that Avalos is using it. The issue is whether "monotheism" was a proper word to use in the first place. For this reason, I have preferred the word monolatry to describe Biblical belief; for the word "god" has acquired too broad a meaning, ranging from beings as diverse as YHWH to Zeus to Xochipilli, while elohim is used of what we would call angels (but "god" is not).
46 -- Avalos' next beef is with translators evading that creation from primordial matter is present in
Gen. 1:1 (as opposed to ex nihilo creation). Once again, this is all been here, done that for us. (reprint of
http://www.tektonics.org/af/exnihilo.html follows)
er.
46-7 Next, Avalos hurls accusations at the NIV for its rendering of
Gen. 2:19....again, been there, done that. Avalos only argues against the pluperfect rendering by saying that in
Genesis 1:7, "the Hebrew shows no difference in the form of the verb" and yet it is not rendered the same way, so the NIV is "soley motivated by an attempt at nullifying the contradiction." From what I found, however, "the form of the verb" is not all what is at issue: (reprint of relevant portion of
http://www.tektonics.org/jedp/creationtwo.html follows)
47-49 The inclusion of this next section in a chapter on translation is an oddity. Avalos rants upon the difference in the age of Jehoachin in 2 Kings vs. 2 Chronicles. Let us reprint our own answer to this:
Was Jehoiachin 18 years old, or 8 (per
2 Chron. 36:9) when he ascended the throne? 18 is more likely, and is supported by one Hebrew mss., some LXX mss., and Syriac mss. Gleason Archer ( Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties , 214-5) states: "A numerical system generally in use during the fifth century BC (when Chronicles was probably composed -- very likely under Ezra's supervision) features a horizontal stroke ending in a hook at its right end as the sign for "ten"; two of them would make the number "20". The digits under ten would be indicated by rows of little vertical strokes, generally in groups of three. Thus, what was originally written over one or more of these groups of short vertical strokes (in this case, eight strokes) would appear as a mere `eight' instead of `eighteen.'" See our foundational essay on copyist errors for general background.
The issue here is therefore not one of "translation" but of a textual-critical decision, and so including it in a chapter on "translation" is indeed most peculiar. Avalos is aware of the answer above (and apparently, a very wacky answer that must have come from his career as a child evangelist -- that Jehoachin reigned twice!), but waves it off as "mere supposition" because "we do not have the original manuscripts." This of course is not a worthy answer (especially since Avalos freely appealed to such activity to the benefit of his own case earlier). Conjectural emendation has always been a standard practice in textual criticism, regardless of the availabily of original manuscripts. The real question, which Avalos will not answer, is whether the conjecture made is reasonable. In this case, it certainly is, for reasons Archer explains. For example, here an author compares NT emendation practice to that of classical works:
The use of conjectural emendation in the classics -- especially those which survive only in single manuscripts -- can hardly be questioned. Even if we assume that there is no editorial activity, scribal error is always present. Thus, for instance, in Howell D. Chickering, Jr.'s edition of Beowulf, we find over two hundred conjectures in the text, and a roughly equal number of places where other sorts of restoration has been called for or where Chickering has rejected common emendations. All this in the space of 3180 lines, usually of four to six words!...
An example comes from Langland's Vision of Piers Plowman. In the editio princeps, which for a long time was the only text available, the very first line read
In a somer seson whan set was the sonne("In a summer season, when >>set<< was the sun")
"Set" is perhaps meaningful, but does not scan. Therefore attempts were made to correct it. The most popular emendation was "hotte," "hot."
The correct reading, as now known from many manuscripts, is "softe," "soft." Thus the proposed emendation, although perfectly sensible and meeting all the desired criteria, in fact gives a meaning exactly opposite the true reading.
(Another example is given from Beowulf.)
One would very much like to see Avalos burst in upon a meeting of classical scholars and harangue them for all of this "supposition" when they don't have the originals. What it boils down to is that Avalos is not a textual scholar -- and his resort to "we don't have the originals" is a childish answer conceptually derived from his former fundamentalist background, when thinking in black and white was acceptable.
Avalos similarly dismisses a textual-critical answer to this issue (who killed Goliath), but treats it no more seriously than did Tim Callahan (and also apparently heard yet another wacky defense in his fundamentalist past, which claimed there were two people named Goliath). Either way he is misclassifying a text-critical issue with translation issues. He is also a hypocrite, for he used such a suggestion himself in spite of not having the original manuscripts.
49-50 Avalos' treatment of
Eccl. 2:25 is a tempest in a teapot.... (see above)
50-52 Avalos here treats
Luke 14:26, and nothing he says touches our own treatment (reprint of
http://www.tektonics.org/gk/jesussayshate.html)
Avalos has answers to none of this, and accuses translators of "sugarcoating"
Luke 14:26 by properly rephrasing "hate" to reflect the nature of the extreme language. He does offer one "answer" rooted in his fundamentalist mentality: He locates passages where he thinks "hate" is obviously meant literally, and thus, he implicitly argues,
Luke 14:26 must be taken literally as well! Of course this is exceptionally foolish; one may as well try to say of the phrase, "it is raining cats and dogs," that we can prove "cats" and "dogs" are meant literally by finding someplace where the person who uses it also says, "I fed my dogs at dinnertime." This is not "arbitrary" as Avalos claims: Scholars have arrived at what he calls the "comparative interpretation" as we have: by comparison with parallel phrases; by seeing that a literal interpetation would be absurd (as well as not indicated by actual practice -- that is, there is no evidence Jesus or later Christians took it literally), and by the social data (as Rihbany indicates).
Furthermore, it is far from clear that all three examples Avalos offers actually indicate literal hate. He actually uses
Judges 14:16 and
Luke 16:13 as two of them, as we do above! The third,
Amos 5:15, does refer to hating evil, and comes closest to what Avalos wants, but his attempt to compare Jesus to a cult leader here fails anyway as an anachronism; for he apparently reads "love" and "hate" in terms of modern emotional attachment rather than practical looking out for an interest (see here).
We do not need to address the matter of using the parallel in Matt. 10:37 (which rephrases Jesus' statement in a less hyperbolic fashion, as one of priority) as an argument, but we will anyway. Avalos says that Matthew can't be used to interpret Luke because we "cannot assume that Luke's readers had read Matthew at the time Luke was written." [51] Why this makes any difference is not explained. It is a given by nearly universal consent that Luke himself had read Matthew and used it as a source, so it hardly matters what any later reader might think -- including readers like Avalos whose fundamentalist mindset leads them to absurd claims such as that the Greek word for "hate" "does not vary and is not subject to as much flexibililty as other words may be." It is sad that someone like Avalos, who possesses scholarly credentials, is patently ignorant of such things as dramatic orientation.
52 -- Avalos then briefly rants about
Matthew 19:12, and of course touches nothing we have written (reprint of
http://www.tektonics.org/af/eunicize.html)
Avalos is left with weakly suggesting that the verse "might literally involve castration" [52] but "might" doesn't even come close to the truth; it doesn't, except by imagination of the fundamentalist sort.
52-3 There is next a brief analysis of
Matthew 5:5 concerning the meek inheriting the earth. Avalos tries to turn this into a reference to Israel only, because, he says, the word used (ge) "probably" did not mean the whole earth. He calls upon the allusion to
Ps. 37 as support, where clearly only Israel is meant. To some extent Avalos has a point; but it remains clear, whatever the geographic designations, that the "meek" will be specially favored. If Avalos wishes to argue somehow that the meek will only get Israel, who does he envision God giving the rest of the earth to under this paradigm?
Matthew 5:5, even if it only means Israel, just as well grants the rest of the earth to the meek by extension. Avalos' whining here is pointless.
53-56 Avalos offers an extended rant on the TNIV with its gender inclusive language. While I sympathize with this to some extent, we do object to Avalos' ill-informed, one-sentence treatment of
1 Tim. 2:12, which is better analyzed here; see also our analysis here. Avalos is aware of this answer, for he mentions the critical work in an endnote [62], but he does not describe it, much less interact with it, only calling it an "attempt to deny" that this passage prohibits women from teaching. Obviously Avalos has no answer to the arguments made by the Kroegers and wishes to hide them from his readers.
56-8 The last section of this chapter is where Avalos provides data for his earlier brief rant on anti-Semitism. His criticism fails on two major points. First, Avalos makes the common error of equating "Jews" in the NT with the modern idea of a group identified with a specific religion. This is an absurdity since Christian apostles continued to call themselves "Jews". "Jews" in the NT actually means "Judaeans" -- as opposed to something like Samaritans or Galileeans or Romans, people whose origins were in the political entity known as Judaea. Second, Avalos commits a similar end-around as the one he did for
Luke 14:26, thinking that if he finds places where "Jews" meant every person in the nation, rather than merely the leadership, he has proven that it must mean "every person in the nation" in the case he wants it to mean that! In particular, he wants
Acts 13:50....
The Jews, however, incited the women of prominence who were worshipers and the leading men of the city, stirred up a persecution against Paul and Barnabas, and expelled them from their territory.
...to mean not just Jewish leaders, or specific Jews, but ALL Jews as a collective identity group! Is Avalos truly so thick as to imagine that Luke is envisioning hundreds of thousands of Judaeans (however he defines them) leaving their home nation and crowding into the synagogue meeting at Antioch for the purpose of inciting a handful of people in that city against Paul??
There is no need to remove reference to "the Jews" in the NT, as some cited by Avalos suggest, in order to subdue violence against modern Jewish persons by anti-Semites (as if they would not make some excuse anyway, once told the truth); what is needed is clarity of meaning, and once we understand that this means "natives of Judaea" it becomes no more "anti-Semitic" than to say something like "the Germans" makes one anti-German. (Avalos may be aware of this answer; he cites Pilch in an endnote [63], but only briefly waves Pilch away by claiming it is he who is imposing his own understanding! Avalos claims that this is shown by the use of the word "Israelites" in Paul's speech, but fails to explain how this is proven by that usage.)
Avalos also needs to get over himself and his claim that it is "anti-Gentile" for Paul to note misbehaviors among Gentiles. This is paranoia doused with political correctness, and beyond that, Avalos merely using Biblical studies, as West observes, as a "whipping boy" to further his agenda.
58 -- For Avalos to charge translators with lying and self-interest is truly the pot calling the kettle black. Avalos has purposely hidden that most of these issues are matters of textual-critical decision; he has also contrived ridiculous arguments to promote his own self-serving agendas (eg, Ecclesiastes teaches modern humanism!).