Which brings us back to 1 John 1:7-2:2. The passage that includes such comments as 8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. 9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him:
Ephesians 2:8-10 Ah yes - we are saved by grace. It pays to investigate the results of taking that for granted.
Romans 4:5. What law and what works are referred to here? The law of Christ, as mentioned in Galatians 6:2? Doesn't seem so.
Romans 11:6 And again - which works is Paul referring to here?
Romans 7:24 to Romans 8:2
First person singular present active indicative throughout. In short, the verbs are in the form of a simple present.
The simple present has has three possible uses:
The historical present might be used to establish a contrast between past and present circumstances. Where it is so used, there will be contradictions (inherent in contrasts) between the descriptions of the prior condition and the current condition. Are such contradictions present in Romans 7 and 8? Assuredly so.
"7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin" contradicts both 7:5 (in which Paul claims to be a member of a group that is not in the flesh), and 8:9.
7:14 εγω δε σαρκικος - I am fleshly (i.e. controlled by the influence of the flesh)
7:5 οτε γαρ ημεν εν τη σαρκι τα παθηματα των αμαρτιων - for when we were in the flesh, subject to the influence of sins ("were" is supplied by οτε/when)
8:9 υμεις δε ουκ εστε εν σαρκι αλλ εν πνευματι - but you are not in the flesh, but in the spirit.
So then - attempting to use the section containing 7:14 doesn't demonstrate that Paul was debtor to the flesh, but it may demonstrate that he had been.
Further, even if it was saying that Paul was debtor to the flesh, it by no means demonstrates that to be true for others.
Either Paul contradicts himself, or you have been misinformed regarding the proper reading of the latter part of Romans 7.
Ephesians 2:8-10 Ah yes - we are saved by grace. It pays to investigate the results of taking that for granted.
Romans 4:5. What law and what works are referred to here? The law of Christ, as mentioned in Galatians 6:2? Doesn't seem so.
Romans 11:6 And again - which works is Paul referring to here?
Romans 7:24 to Romans 8:2
First person singular present active indicative throughout. In short, the verbs are in the form of a simple present.
The simple present has has three possible uses:
1/ simple present (not particularly likely)
2/ continuous/imperfect present (very likely)
3/ historical present (fairly likely)
2/ continuous/imperfect present (very likely)
3/ historical present (fairly likely)
The historical present might be used to establish a contrast between past and present circumstances. Where it is so used, there will be contradictions (inherent in contrasts) between the descriptions of the prior condition and the current condition. Are such contradictions present in Romans 7 and 8? Assuredly so.
"7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin" contradicts both 7:5 (in which Paul claims to be a member of a group that is not in the flesh), and 8:9.
7:14 εγω δε σαρκικος - I am fleshly (i.e. controlled by the influence of the flesh)
7:5 οτε γαρ ημεν εν τη σαρκι τα παθηματα των αμαρτιων - for when we were in the flesh, subject to the influence of sins ("were" is supplied by οτε/when)
8:9 υμεις δε ουκ εστε εν σαρκι αλλ εν πνευματι - but you are not in the flesh, but in the spirit.
So then - attempting to use the section containing 7:14 doesn't demonstrate that Paul was debtor to the flesh, but it may demonstrate that he had been.
Further, even if it was saying that Paul was debtor to the flesh, it by no means demonstrates that to be true for others.
Either Paul contradicts himself, or you have been misinformed regarding the proper reading of the latter part of Romans 7.
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