The events in Daniel 11 seem to correspond pretty clearly to specific events before the time of Christ (Antiochus Epiphanes being a clear referent in Daniel 11:31). As far as I know, nobody disputes this.
Daniel 12, on the other hand, is generally understood as eschatalogical; about the final judgment. However, there doesn't seem to be a clear segue between the two when I read it. It seems to portray it pretty clearly as something that will happen right after the previous events; without a big gap in history. The notes in the Harper Collins Study Bible pretty much say that it was simply a false prophecy. I don't find that answer satisfying and am convinced there is more than that. But where exactly is the segue in time?
Daniel 12, on the other hand, is generally understood as eschatalogical; about the final judgment. However, there doesn't seem to be a clear segue between the two when I read it. It seems to portray it pretty clearly as something that will happen right after the previous events; without a big gap in history. The notes in the Harper Collins Study Bible pretty much say that it was simply a false prophecy. I don't find that answer satisfying and am convinced there is more than that. But where exactly is the segue in time?
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