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Since the theology is important to the hermeneutic applied in reading it, we can go ahead with theology at this point.Ok, I see what you mean. However, Margaret G. Sim (who is a linguist and biblical scholar who lectured for many years in Biblical Studies and Translation at Africa International University. She now works as a translation consultant for Wycliffe Bible Translators.) Has a different take on it. In her book "Marking Thought and Talk in New Testament Greek" Margaret Sim says this:
I think you are already acknowledging this statement...yes?
Thoughts?
[Marking Thought and Talk in New Testament Greek - Margaret G. Sim Page 3]: The question raised in the book is: what inference does the use of "ἵνα" with the subjunctive invite the reader to draw in her interpretation of the clause it introduces and it's relationship to the rest of the sentence? This question arises because it seems to be a general assumption, based on an earlier stage of the language, that the meaning, or dictionary entry for "ἵνα" is: 'in order that'. A study of the NT texts alone, however, shows that for Luke and John this is true for only 40% and 62% of such uses respectively. The remaining instances show a wide range of clause types, in terms of traditional grammar, as noted above, together with contexts in which the telic interpretation of this particle is simply impossible.
Consider the following example (1) from 1 John 1:9:
Example (1) 9 ἐὰν ὁμολογῶμεν τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἡμῶν, πιστός ἐστιν καὶ δίκαιος , ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν τὰς ἁμαρτίας, καὶ αθαρίσῃ ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ πάσης ἀδικίας. if we confess our sins, he (God) is faithful and just that he should forgive our sins and cleanse us from all wrongdoing.
The content of the clause introduced by "ἵνα" "...that he should forgive our sins..." cannot be the purpose of the righteous and faithful nature of God. It is rather the reverse: the author is claiming that the faithfulness and righteous nature of God is the basis on which such forgivness might be predicted.
Consider the following example (1) from 1 John 1:9:
Example (1) 9 ἐὰν ὁμολογῶμεν τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἡμῶν, πιστός ἐστιν καὶ δίκαιος , ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν τὰς ἁμαρτίας, καὶ αθαρίσῃ ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ πάσης ἀδικίας. if we confess our sins, he (God) is faithful and just that he should forgive our sins and cleanse us from all wrongdoing.
The content of the clause introduced by "ἵνα" "...that he should forgive our sins..." cannot be the purpose of the righteous and faithful nature of God. It is rather the reverse: the author is claiming that the faithfulness and righteous nature of God is the basis on which such forgivness might be predicted.
"...not as a container of semantic content, but as a particle that functions to represent what the speaker thinks or expects. Thus, hina can (and does) regularly function to indicate purpose, but it also (not infrequently) indicates commands or wishes."
I think you are already acknowledging this statement...yes?
Thoughts?
How is that deterministic? In my understanding, determinism is God dictating what will happen; God allowing what would happen without intervention would appear to be the antithesis of determinism. The EO is not at all deterministic in its theology; free will is emphasized.
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