GodisonePerson
June 27th 2003, 12:13 PM
Dear JP
I think your idea about verbs of production and temporality needs a little more tweaking and support. First, saying that verbs of production have no inherent temporal value in and of themselves seems to be quite an audacious claim. For Hebrew, Greek, English, and Latin, to name a few languages, possibly do not all function in the same way. This is not to mention the Slavic languages or other Semitic tongues.
English and Latin are tense based languages. Hebrew may or may not be tenseless and scholars fiercely debate aspect and Aktionsart as well as the role that temporality may or may not play in Greek grammar. So how you can make a blanket statement concerning verbs of production seems baffling.
I also ran a search of the Greek words for "create" and "creation" as they were used until the fourth century and only found one ambiguous example that does not suggest a "creation" came into existence at a certain time from non-being. That is in Origen. Maybe you've found examples in the ANE literature that buttress your argument.
In any event, what I'm therefore wondering is who you're relying on to support this claim that verbs of production have no inherent temporal value in and of themselves. Not saying you're totally wrong. I would just like more than your opinion on this subject since I don't think that this particular area is your academic specialty.
Peace
Dan
I think your idea about verbs of production and temporality needs a little more tweaking and support. First, saying that verbs of production have no inherent temporal value in and of themselves seems to be quite an audacious claim. For Hebrew, Greek, English, and Latin, to name a few languages, possibly do not all function in the same way. This is not to mention the Slavic languages or other Semitic tongues.
English and Latin are tense based languages. Hebrew may or may not be tenseless and scholars fiercely debate aspect and Aktionsart as well as the role that temporality may or may not play in Greek grammar. So how you can make a blanket statement concerning verbs of production seems baffling.
I also ran a search of the Greek words for "create" and "creation" as they were used until the fourth century and only found one ambiguous example that does not suggest a "creation" came into existence at a certain time from non-being. That is in Origen. Maybe you've found examples in the ANE literature that buttress your argument.
In any event, what I'm therefore wondering is who you're relying on to support this claim that verbs of production have no inherent temporal value in and of themselves. Not saying you're totally wrong. I would just like more than your opinion on this subject since I don't think that this particular area is your academic specialty.
Peace
Dan