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What's going on in Romans 9?
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Sheepdog is offline
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 02:19 AM
 
 
 
 
 
/me slowly opens the can of worms, pointing it away from his face

Calvinists seem to think it is the nail in the coffin of Arminianism. Arminians think ... well, a lot of things.

What i'd like to do for this thread is to have constructive conversation, where each side presents its case(s) and critiques. that'd be great!

What i would rather not have would include one-liner assertions, mockery, snide remarks. People who do such will be body slammed by Sumo Bob. you don't want to be body slammed by Sumo Bob, do you?

I'll start by admitting that, to their credit, the Calvinists seem to have their act together in regards to this passage. but as an Arminian, that is the only thing ill concede up-front

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 06:23 AM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
/me pulls up a chair and starts the popcorn in the microwave.

I'm just waiting for Arminian.

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 08:18 AM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
Which verse?? or verses??

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 10:16 AM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
I'd say it all has to do with context.
Not so much context in the chapter as context in Romans itself.

Romans begins with a talk of sin, and of depravity (whether or not you're a calvinist, romans 1). IT escalates to Paul's personal struggle with sin (Romans 6 or maybe its 5), then to God's grace in salvation instead of following the law, then at the peak of Romans 8, it speaks of salvation and justification, then at romans 9, the chapter in question, then it goes to Romans 10 to talk more of salvation.

Here's where the trouble is. Arminians argue this chapter is speaking of one of two thing

1. Nations (Israel and Edom)
2. God's actions in one's life that to not pertain to salvation.

Each of these can be a very convincing argument when working with just the chapter itself. But looking in the scope of the entire book, a non-salvational issue does not make sense, nor does it add in any way to the argument or flow of Romans.

That's my take on it

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 01:01 PM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
Today @ 11:23 AM post located here
Jaltus:


* Jaltus pulls up a chair and starts the popcorn in the microwave.


I'm just waiting for Arminian.

yeah, Arminian is a little ahead of me(ok, WAY ahead ) , I think I will wait till he pulls out one his commentaries on the passage.l

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 02:05 PM
 
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Today @ 08:18 AM post located here
Bill the Cat:


Which verse?? or verses??
more or less the whole thing. we could do from 6 on, but IMO 1-5 is important to the meaning as well. (i think 9:6ff. is but a small part of Pauls overall argument in chs. 9-11).

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 02:06 PM
 
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Today @ 03:16 PM post located here
Stephen:


I'd say it all has to do with context.
Not so much context in the chapter as context in Romans itself.
Yes!

Romans begins with a talk of sin, and of depravity (whether or not you're a calvinist, romans 1). IT escalates to Paul's personal struggle with sin (Romans 6 or maybe its 5), then to God's grace in salvation instead of following the law, then at the peak of Romans 8, it speaks of salvation and justification, then at romans 9, the chapter in question, then it goes to Romans 10 to talk more of salvation.
Well...

Romans is all about justification by faith versus the law.

Scripture Verse:

Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.


Setting the stage...
Scripture Verse:

Romans 2:12 For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law 13 (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; 14 for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, 15 who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them)


This isn't talking about conscience of unregenerate man, rather it is speaking of gentile Christians under the new covenant of Jer 31:33.
Scripture Verse:

Rom 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. 29 Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, 30 since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith.


The contrast of faith is deeds of the law. It is not possible for the Jew to be justified through deeds of the law, only by faith. This is not an argument of syngerism vs monergism, but whether a Jew can be justified through the law.
Scripture Verse:

Rom 4:3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was *accounted to him for righteousness."


What did it mean that Abraham believed God? It means when God said "leave Ur and go to the land I will show you" he got up and went. It means when God said "you will have a son by Sarah" he kept lying with Sarah until she conceived. I see response to God being called belief, which is the same as faith. Hmmm...
Scripture Verse:

Rom 6:17 But God be thanked that though you were slaves of sin, yet you obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine to which you were delivered. 18 And having been set free from sin, you became slaves of righteousness.


An obedient response sets us free.
Scripture Verse:

Rom 7:1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives?

7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law.

7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual, but I am carnal, sold under sin. 15 For what I am doing, I do not understand. For what I will to do, that I do not practice; but what I hate, that I do. 16 If, then, I do what I will not to do, I agree with the law that it is good. 17 But now, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. 18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells; for to will is present with me, but how to perform what is good I do not find.


The will in the man under the law can acknowledge it is good, but yet is powerless to do all of it. He can want to do right, but cannot do it.
Scripture Verse:

Rom 8:3 For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.


Law which holds us in bondage versus grace which sets us free by the Holy Spirit.

Chapter 9

Context: Why did Israel (or much of it) reject Jesus and God’s salvation?

Theme: God chooses the means of salvation, those of Israel who rejected God’s way were rejected by God.

1) It is not the natural children who are God’s children, but it is the children of the promise. (Note that the promise of Isaac DID require Abraham and Sarah’s participation – it was not an immaculate conception. Synergy was required!)

2) Jacob vs Esau – It was not a matter of legal inheritance. God will choose the means of receiving his promise.

3) Pharaoh was foreknown to have a hard heart – Pharaoh first rejected God’s command (I do not know this God, nor will I let your people go) before it says God hardened his heart.

4) Potter and clay – it is an analogy, and because pots have not will it cannot be taken too far.

5) V22-24 – How is God’s glory displayed? Is it by displaying wrath on the unsuspecting? Or is it by showing mercy on the undeserving? It talks about God’s patience – what does this imply if not that God is giving them the opportunity to repent?

6) V25 clearly shows the context is group not individual election. The point being that no longer are the ethnic Jews the boundary of God’s involvement with men but rather all people are now invited to come in.

7) The “why do we believe and others do not” is answered in v32 – Israel pursued a righteousness of works rather than accepting God’s salvation by faith. Same today that people reject God’s way for their own. See also 11:23.

Scripture Verse:

Rom 10:9 that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame."*


Self explanatory.
Scripture Verse:

Rom 11:22 Therefore consider the goodness and severity of God: on those who fell, severity; but toward you, *goodness, if you continue in His goodness. Otherwise you also will be cut off. 23 And they also, if they do not continue in unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.


Obedient belief is the criteria for selection.

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 02:14 PM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
Last edited by Sheepdog : September 23rd 2003 at 02:19 PM .  
 
 
Blake, your avatar is scaring me

Stephen, some comments

Today @ 10:16 AM post located here
Stephen:


I'd say it all has to do with context.
Not so much context in the chapter as context in Romans itself.

Romans begins with a talk of sin, and of depravity (whether or not you're a calvinist, romans 1). IT escalates to Paul's personal struggle with sin (Romans 6 or maybe its 5), then to God's grace in salvation instead of following the law, then at the peak of Romans 8, it speaks of salvation and justification, then at romans 9, the chapter in question, then it goes to Romans 10 to talk more of salvation.
agreed (the chapter you want is 7, though. 6 is on why we believers shouldn't sin)

Here's where the trouble is. Arminians argue this chapter is speaking of one of two thing

1. Nations (Israel and Edom)
2. God's actions in one's life that to not pertain to salvation.

Each of these can be a very convincing argument when working with just the chapter itself. But looking in the scope of the entire book, a non-salvational issue does not make sense, nor does it add in any way to the argument or flow of Romans.
what does 9:1-5 say? my current thought are that 9-11 is an argument as to why God hasn't failed, even though is own people rejected their messiah. i would agree that it is talking of individual salvation (whether explicit or implied-- seems implied to me), but Paul had a specific sentiment he was dealing with. remember, a noticable part of Paul's discussion in Romans deals with the whole Jew-Gentile relationship in the new covenant. we see that a lot in passages like chapter 3.

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 02:19 PM
 
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Today @ 02:06 PM post located here
TedO:


Scripture Verse:

Rom 10:9 that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame."*

yes! TedO, you know what i have always found odd whenever i read Romans from cover to cover? that, right after Pauls supposed discourse on unconditional salvation, we see 10:9, a verse that seems to imply salvation is dependant on man (i.e. our choice to confess Lord Jesus, and believe).

 
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Old
  September 23rd 2003 , 02:54 PM
 
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Today @ 01:14 PM post located here
Sheepdog:


my current thought are that 9-11 is an argument as to why God hasn't failed, even though [H]is own people rejected their messiah. i would agree that it is talking of individual salvation (whether explicit or implied-- seems implied to me), but Paul had a specific sentiment he was dealing with. remember, a noticable part of Paul's discussion in Romans deals with the whole Jew-Gentile relationship in the new covenant. we see that a lot in passages like chapter 3.
Exactly. The question Paul is answering is "How can God be trusted if He gave up on Israel and now chooses the church? What keeps him from givin' up on the church for some new bunch?" Paul answers his rhetorical question by showing that (1) Israel's unfaithfulness does not make God unfaithful, and (2) that God is not done with Israel, but will restore her to faith in the future. [note: Paul does hit on a few other points in this section ;-)]

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Old
  September 24th 2003 , 05:19 AM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
Last edited by Arminian : September 24th 2003 at 05:45 AM .  
 
 
Red e-mailed me and asked me to post. Must....edit.....later.....

Calvinists seem to think it is the nail in the coffin of Arminianism. Arminians think ... well, a lot of things.
Well, in my opinion, this section of Paul's book supports neither side more than the other.

What i would rather not have would include one-liner assertions,
Rats!

mockery,
No mockery either?

snide remarks.
Where's the fun in that?

What i'd like to do for this thread is to have constructive conversation, where each side presents its case(s) and critiques. that'd be great!
I'm in over my head right now, so let me comment quickly and catch up and explain more at a later date. You'll see my explanation of Romans 11:26 is the same as Wright's ("all Israel" is saved by the influx of the Gentiles, because Gentiles are co-heirs). I will have to explain Paul's reference to "Zion" later, becuase Wright, among others, really misses the point.

Paul's argument here, in chapter 9, is the same argument he is making throughout his book. In order to understand him, we need to start at chapter 1!!! (Actually, we need to start at the beginning of God's Book, Genesis 1-3!). However, to maintain some of the traditional level of confusion, well start in the middle of the book, as has been done for hundreds of years (OK, that will be my only snide remark.)

I will show that structure of argumentation again:

I. True Nature of God's Israel
A. True desc. = not children of flesh, but children of "promise"
1. "True" are named through Isaac (a child of promise)
2. "Same with Rebecca" (who had a child of promise)
a. God's election was of "Jacob" (another of child of promise)
i. His election of Jacob does not make God unjust
ii. His election of Jacob is based upon His mercy/compassion
Compare Pharaoh (mercy/hardening)
B. Why does God blame "fleshly" Israel if He chose this "true" Israel?
1. How does "man" argue with God's choice?
2. What if God endured in order to make His glory known?
a. As Hosea says ... (Jew/Gentile issue)
b. And as Isaiah cries out ... (Jew/Gentile issue)
C. What can be said? Gentiles did obey; Israel stumbled!
1. As it was written ...
2. Paul's desire that some of them believe.

In this structure, note how the illustrations are embedded within a context-specific issue: THE ISRAEL OF GOD!

Paul's opposition argues that if Paul is right, "God's word has failed!" (9:6) What are they arguing about? Are they arguing that God's word has failed if He picked one individual person to be saved and not another? What kind of sense would that make? Certainly they must have in mind a particular "promise" or "word"? Or are they just pulling that comment out of a hat!?

On the contrary, the Jewish opposition is arguing that a particular promise was made. If that promise was not kept, GOD's WORD HAS FAILED! Here's the promise: that Abraham would be the father of many nations and that his seed would inherit the land.

"Now if this is right," Paul's opposition argued, "then any sane person knows that Israel has claim to the inheritance, the promise of God. Therefore, the promise is according to the flesh -- the seed -- of Abraham!" Of course, they were right. Israel DOES have the claim to the inheritance, but just WHO is God's Israel? Israel according to the flesh of Abraham, or Israel according to the promise?

Right from the start of Paul's book, he begins to make the argument that Israel according to the flesh is not the Israel of God, because they are still in the first 'adam (humanity). The true Jew, according to Paul (and to the frustration of his opposition), is the Jew or Gentile who is one inwardly -- who is in God's new work in Messiah, the Second 'Adam. One who is a Jew inwardly has received a real circumcision, which is in the heart, by the Spirit.

Elsewhere in Scripture we find the same contrasts concerning the fulfillment of God's promise to His Israel:

"earthly Israel" vs. "God's true Israel"
"present Jerusalem" vs. "Jerusalem above"
"Mount Sinai" vs. "Mount Zion"
"copy/shadow" vs. "true"
"house built by Moses" vs. "house built by Jesus
"Joshua's rest" vs. "Jesus' rest"
"that country" vs. "a better country, that is a heavenly one"
"a blazing fire" vs. "the city of the living God"

So let's look, quickly, at how Paul opens his book:

1Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an
apostle and set apart for the gospel of God--
2the gospel he promised beforehand through
his prophets in the Holy Scriptures.


Whatever Paul's "gospel" is, it is the fulfillment of a "promise" made to someone.

Let's look at how Paul ends his book:

25Now to him who is able to establish you by
my gospel and the proclamation of Jesus
Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery
hidden for long ages past, 26but now revealed
and made known through the prophetic writings
by the command of the eternal God, so that
all nations might believe and obey
him--
27to the only wise God be glory forever through
Jesus Christ!

Paul's "gospel" is the fulfillment of the promises (not the failure!!) made in Scripture sooooo long ago. The promise made to Abraham and his Seed (Gal 3:16-17), repeated over and over throughout the ages, is now fulfilled in "the proclamation of Jesus Christ!" WOW!!! We'd have to pluck out our eyes to miss that!!

Of course, there are so many other verses I could reference, but I always must at least include the following from chapter 15:

5May the God who gives endurance and encouragement
give you a spirit of unity among yourselves as you follow
Christ Jesus, 6so that with one heart and mouth you
may glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Accept one another, then, just as Christ accepted you,
in order to bring praise to God. 8For I tell you that
Christ has become a servant of the Jews on behalf of
God's truth, to confirm the promises made to the
patriarchs
9so that the Gentiles may glorify God for
his mercy, as it is written:
"Therefore I will praise you among the Gentiles;

Christ is the fulfillment of "the promises made to the patriarchs," so GOD'S WORD HAS NOT FAILED!! Jew and Gentiles, therefore, may "accept one another" and thereby bring praise to God.

Now back to Romans 9. So how is it that God's word has not failed (as if we didn't already know!). The issue and the antithesis (9:6-8):

a. not all Israel is Israel.
b. not all of Abraham's descendants are his children (or, not all his children are his "seed" -- there is some debate on the translation).

Of course, this is a restatement of what was said in chapter 4, regarding Abraham:

So then, he is the father of all who believe
but have not been circumcised, in order that
righteousness might be credited to them. 12And
he is also the father of the circumcised who not
only are circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps
of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.
13It was not through law that Abraham
and his offspring received the promise that he would
be heir of the world, but through the righteousness
that comes by faith.


Paul's point above is that the Israel of the law did not inherit the promises, but Abraham's offspring by faith do! Not all of the Israel according the flesh is God's Israel, because not all believe.

So how does this argument that "not all Israel is Israel" help Paul's argument, and how does it relate to the illustrations that follow? Because:

In other words, it is not the natural children
who are God's children, but it is the children
of the promise who are regarded as Abraham's
offspring. For this was how the promise was
stated: "At the appointed time I will return,
and Sarah will have a son."

The "In other words" (NIV), "That is" (NASB) or "Tout' estin" (UBS) restates his point of the Isaac account analogy. That point: that "it is not the natural children who are God's children, but it is the 'children of the promise' who are regarded as Abraham's offspring."

This is covenantal language. His opponents say THEY, as "natural children" ("fleshly descendants"), are the rightful heirs to God's covenantal promise. Paul says otherwise. Abraham's descendants are those who are children of the promise. What promise? To Abraham and his "Seed." Paul argues FOR the "new covenant in Messiah" against the "old covenant at Sinai." Messiah is heir, and in him we are co-heirs to that promise.

Israel through Isaac and Jacob was not according to the "natural order." It was according to the promise. Likewise, Israel through Messiah (through "faith in him") is the fulfillment of the promise to Abraham, thus uniting Jew and Gentiles in Christ.

And what of Sinaitic Israel? It was a marred pot which was reshaped for destruction. This is nothing new. It was spoken of from ages past. Scriptures CLEARLY predicted this and described that day. Israel according to the flesh is/was destined for destruction, so all who are in it are condemned. The Israel in the Seed is destined for glory, and all in Him are saved.

We'll look a little closer at this issue in Paul's closing remarks in this section of his book

For I do not want you, brethren, to be uninformed
of this mystery, lest you be wise in your own estimation,
that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until
the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; and thus all
Israel
will be saved; just as it is written, "THE DELIVERER
WILL COME FROM ZION, HE WILL REMOVE UNGODLINESS
FROM JACOB. AND THIS IS MY COVENANT WITH THEM,
WHEN I TAKE AWAY THEIR SINS."

Paul is speaking of that day when Messiah would come and deliver humanity from the one problem facing them: SIN. The "old" covenant order with its earthly Israel could not "deliver from sin." For if it could, then Messiah died for nothing. Rather, that "old" order was a temporary measure, holding back God's righteous judgment, until the arrival of the Deliverer. Luke-Acts takes this position in his proclamation of the arrival of the Deliverer. This great Deliverer has arrived, and has dealt the final blow to the sin/death problem.

But let us not ignore the actual wording of this Romans passage. Paul says that

"a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness
of the Gentiles has come in; and THUS all Israel will be saved."

The word I have translated "thus" is "houtos." If someone says that Paul speaks of a time AFTER the times of the Gentiles, they do so on the supposition that "houtos" is a temporal adverb. As such they must translate it as "then"

"a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness
of the Gentiles has come in; and THEN all Israel will be saved."

What such a person supposes, then, is that Paul here speaks of a sequential series of events, as you would say it, one event AFTER the other; the fullness comes in, THEN all Israel will be saved.

But "houtos" is not a temporal adverb. It is an adverb of manner. Properly translated it would read, "in this way, thus, so, like this." That is, it express the MANNER in which the clause it modifies will occur, not the TIME WHEN it will occur.

So, in view of this, properly translated the Romans passage should read,

"a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness
of the Gentiles has come in; and in this manner all Israel will
be saved."

If Paul intended to convey the idea of temporal sequence, he would have chosen from the "temporal" adverbs available to him: (haurion, nun, perusi, proi, semeron, tote).

Something other than "temporal sequence," then, is what is referred to here. As is the case with an adverb of manner, the "How" of the clause is in view. How will "all Israel be saved"? In what manner will "all Israel be saved"? The coming in of the fullness of the Gentiles is that which constitutes the "saving of all Israel."

This seems to fit my thesis very well. For Paul does not here speak of the "Israel" which has its physical descent from Jacob, but that which has its descent from Abraham and his "seed." That is, as Paul had said in his introduction to this 9-11 section of his Romans argument:

For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel;
neither are they all children because they are Abraham's
descendants ...

... it is not the children of the flesh who are children of God,
but the children of the promise are regarded as descendants.

So, too, he concludes this section of his argument with a description of what the "true" Israel would look like, that is, the Israel according to promise. It would be "delivered" in finality upon the arrival of the fullness of the "other nations."

His whole point in this argument is that physical descent from Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (that all important aspect of the "old" covenant) was not a proper characterization of this "new" covenant work of God, wherein "all nations" would be FELLOW-heirs and FELLOW-members to the inheritance. And what is that inheritance? According to Moses (and the Prophets) it is restoration to the land which He had prepared for them to dwell in, the land from which His people had been exiled.

And what was it that caused the exile in the first place? SIN which lead to "death" (separation and exile from God's righteous presence). And how would God restore His people to that land? In the "seed" of Abraham, the Deliverer from ZION. Those who are in Messiah are the legitimate heirs to the inheritance, restoration to the land prepared by God for a people.

As Isaiah puts it (quoted by Paul):

And a Deliverer will come to ZION, and to those who turn from
transgression in Jacob.

And as for Me, this is My covenant with them, My Spirit which is
upon you, and My words which I have put in your mouth, shall not
depart from your mouth, nor from the mouth of your offspring,
nor from the mouth of your offspring's offspring, from now and
forever.

Therefore through this Jacob's SIN will be forgiven; And this
will be the full price of the pardoning of his sin: When he makes
all the altar stones like pulverized chalk stones; When Asherim
and incense altars will not stand.

As our Hebrews author puts it:

For you have not come to a mountain (Sinai) that may be
touched and to a blazing fire, and to darkness and gloom and
whirlwind, and to the blast of a trumpet and the sound of words
which sound was such that those who heard begged that no
further word should be spoken to them.

And so terrible was the sight, that Moses said, "I AM FULL OF
FEAR and trembling."

But you have come to Mount Zion (Abrahamic) and to the city of the
living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, and to myriads of angels, to
the general assembly and church of the first-born who are
enrolled in heaven, and to God, the Judge of all, and to the spirits
of righteous men made perfect,

and to Jesus, the mediator of a new covenant, and to the
sprinkled blood, which speaks better than the blood of Abel.

Therefore, since we receive a kingdom which cannot be shaken,
let us show gratitude, by which we may offer to God an
acceptable service with reverence and awe.

With the arrival of the fullness of "all nations" God's work of deliverance will be complete. God's Israel will be saved in finality.

 
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Old
  September 24th 2003 , 10:06 AM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
Easily the best defense of romans 9 I've ever heard by any arminian.

Rethinking my position...

 
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Old
  September 24th 2003 , 10:14 AM
 
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The subject matter of Romans 9 is a comparison of Gospel privileges for Israel and the Gentiles, not salvation.


Romans 9
1 I say the truth in Christ, I lie not, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Ghost,
2 That I have great heaviness and continual sorrow in my heart.
3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.
6 Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:
7 Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.
8 That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.
9 For this is the word of promise, At this time will I come, and Sarah shall have a son.
10 And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac;
11 (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)
12 It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger.
13 As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.
14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.
17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.
18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,
24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
25 As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
26 And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.
27 Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved:
28 For he will finish the work, and cut it short in righteousness: because a short work will the Lord make upon the earth.
29 And as Esaias said before, Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha.
30 What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.

The word "predestination" does not occur in Romans 9.

 
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Old
  September 24th 2003 , 12:11 PM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
hmm. Arminian, i may have some comments, but i want to reread Romans 9 for comparison. i'll get back to you-- hopefully this evening.

 
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Old
  September 24th 2003 , 01:26 PM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
 
 
 
Arminian,

 
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Old
  September 24th 2003 , 05:30 PM
 
In reply to this post by Sheepdog
Last edited by Blake Reas : September 24th 2003 at 05:44 PM .  
 
 
You said a short comment! I will enjoy reading the long!


I agree with everything you said(except the vessels of mercy/wrath bit, but I am going to read it again)! Maybe I am missing something (if I am point it out to me) wouldn't this bring about the question of were faith comes from? I agree that the Israel of God is not the seed of Abraham but the seed of the promise. Like you said someone would have to pull your eyes out not to see that in Paul's argument.
I have one more question that relates to the issue. In Romans 9:21-25. Were Paul says "What if God,desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience, vessels prepared for destruction, in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy which he has prepared beforehand for glory-----even us whom he has called not from Jews only but also from Gentiles?" (ESV)

My question as you can probably see is what does "beforehand" mean in this verse? I am willing to go with what the word of God says. It was just a question of clarification for my own understanding.

Thanks,
Blake
Blake returns to his popcorn and violin and plays a tune.

 
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