So you agree that there are disputed books. Thank you.
Your welcome. By the way, what your point?
Bold assumptions. Yet you avoided in answering the one that I brought up. I'll take that as an admission that there are inconsistencies that you are not willing deal with. Instead, you'll throw some unsupported "argue from ignorance" in avoidance.
Actually I didn’t avoid it, I forgot it. I was going to finish with the rest of my replies and come back to it and then forgot you had asked the question.
Please provide some background. You asked was it all right to divorce, with the implication that this is somehow contradicted in the Bible. Please provide the verses you think contradict each other.
Let's start with one. The NT argues that the "sacrifice" of Christ is necessary to take sins away and you must accept that, otherwise you are doomed to be judged under the 'law.' No such condition exists in the OT for it contains a complete system of redemption from sins, sans Jesus.
Oh dear, I do hope this isn’t the extent of your theological knowledge.
Accepting the sacrifice of Christ is necessary to take away the guilt of your sins.
The Law did not provide a system of complete redemption from sins since you had to regularly sacrifice. It also did nothing for the Gentiles. There was no redemption under the Law.
Hebrews:
11When Christ came as high priest of the good things that are already here, he went through the greater and more perfect tabernacle that is not man-made, that is to say, not a part of this creation. 12He did not enter by means of the blood of goats and calves; but he entered the Most Holy Place once for all by his own blood, having obtained eternal redemption. 13The blood of goats and bulls and the ashes of a heifer sprinkled on those who are ceremonially unclean sanctify them so that they are outwardly clean. 14How much more, then, will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself unblemished to God, cleanse our consciences from acts that lead to death, so that we may serve the living God!
15For this reason Christ is the mediator of a new covenant, that those who are called may receive the promised eternal inheritance--now that he has died as a ransom to set them free from the sins committed under the first covenant.
Indeed, a fine continuation of Christian misinterpretations. Winding apologies aside, it was a conditional prophecy to King Ahaz, more proof of this is in scripture. If you read on to verse16, there remains no question to whom this prophecy is directed to.
In the very next chapter, we read about Emmanuel and how God has given the children for signs and wonders in Israel.
You know it would really help if you were a bit more expansive with your answers. Who was this verse directed to?
16:But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste.
And how does it indicate that it was not referring to Jesus?
In the very next chapter we do not read about Immanuel at all but about Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz, the son of the Prophetess. His birth is also stated as a measure: Before the boy knows how to say 'My father' or 'My mother,' the wealth of Damascus and the plunder of Samaria will be carried off by the king of Assyria."
It is clear that Matthew (or whoever wrote it) pulled a verse out of the OT, made some alterations to it and claimed that it was fulfilled by Jesus.
What alterations?
Isaiah:
14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
Matthew:
23"The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel" --which means, "God with us."
Again, have you ever heard of the Septuagint?
Also, have you ever heard of paraphrase?
The author admits it is a typology. Ergo, not a prophecy to be fulfilled by "messiah."
Didn’t read it did you?
If you had you would have read this:
But this still doesn't answer the question of WHY Matthew used this passage-it DOES look a bit strange to 'Western minds'. We have seen that typology would be an appropriate vehicle for understanding this connection, but is there something MORE TO IT?
Indeed, in this passage we see the peculiar Semitic notion of 'corporate solidarity', that forms an ever-present substrate in biblical teaching, and which goes BEYOND typology.
That’s okay, it was a bit long and you probably would have been bored.
[quote] No, Hebrews says God turned away from them. Jeremiah has God saying "I was an husband onto them" having an opposite implication.[quote]
Hmmm…let’s see:
Jeremiah:
because they broke my covenant,
though I was a husband to them,"
declares the LORD .
Hebrews:
because they did not remain faithful to my covenant,
and I turned away from them, declares the Lord.
Granted the words are a little different (ever hear of the Septuagint?) but the implication is the same. J: You broke my covenant even though I was like a husband to you H: You broke my covenant so I turned away from you.
Your objection is pretty weak.
In Hebrews, the Law is done away with ("obsolete"), in Jeremiah, it is reintroduced into people's hearts so that all will know the law.
Jeremiah:
31 "The time is coming," declares the LORD ,
"when I will make a new covenant
with the house of Israel
and with the house of Judah.
33 "This is the covenant I will make with the house of Israel
after that time," declares the LORD .
"I will put my law in their minds
and write it on their hearts.
I will be their God,
and they will be my people.
34 No longer will a man teach his neighbor,
or a man his brother, saying, 'Know the LORD ,'
because they will all know me,
from the least of them to the greatest,"
declares the LORD .
"For I will forgive their wickedness
and will remember their sins no more."
The New Covenant is Christ. The Old Covenant – the Law of Moses – was fulfilled in Christ and became obsolete. The New Covenant – the Redemption of Christ – took its place.
[quote]Jeremiah, by the way, also contains some end-time prophecies that were not fulfilled by Jesus, though according to Hebrews, Jesus apparently did fulfill these verses.[quote]
You don’t understand what Jeremiah is saying.
Yes, it would indicate something, unfortunately, Jesus was not that something, as I have pointed out. He failed to accomplish virtually all of the "in those days..." verses that follow the verse where coins are cast.
Actually you haven’t point
anything out, you make a lot of assertions but don’t ever back them up with something of substance.
That aside, you will have to do a bit more reading before you can make statements like “Jesus failed to fulfill” because it is obvious you are interpreting them from a “fundamentalist” position. However, from within the fundamentalist position, the reply is “the verses refer to Christ’s second coming and are yet to be fulfilled”.
God and messiah are two separate entities in the OT, that Jesus is God is a claim hinted at in the NT and finalized in Church doctrine. As Jesus has been shown to be false, it follows that he was not God.
Except Jesus has not been shown to be false, saying it doesn’t make it so.
Hinted at eh? What do you make of this then:
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was with God in the beginning.
3Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4In him was life, and that life was the light of men. 5The light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not understood it.
14The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
He was killed by those who's authority he threatened. Yet the multitude followed him, they did not reject him as the OT verse claims.

Based on what you have already written, this shouldn’t surprise me but it still does. Are you claiming the Jews flocked to Jesus and followed Him? If so, why did they let the authorities kill Him? Some followers.
As you can see, the servant is Israel, and all these functions have been hijacked by Jesus. "You are my servant, Israel, in whom I will be glorified." has changed into God being glorified in Jesus.
The context is clear. The servant is introduced as Israel, and then we read what will happen to the servant. Anything else is conjecture
You didn’t read the link did you? There is no point in objecting to something unless you actually know what it says.
Probably because the original psalm in Hebrew contains no reference of anyone being crucified.
Read Hebrew do we?
nya-ah. Boo-yah. You slam a barrage of verses that require long explanation that will drag this thread on forever. You should just pick one.
You should back you statements up with something other than “is not”. Simple statements deserve simple responses.
Because I am not trying to interpret the OT to make it fit around Jesus.
Ah yes…the conspiracy theory. The verses don’t say this, but dishonest and devious translators whose entire careers hang on correctly translating the verses, got together and agreed to twist the true meanings simply to continue the myth of Jesus.
BTW – Oswald killed Kennedy; alone; from the book depository window; and no the FBI isn’t trying to cover it up.
Indeed. The writers of the Talmud saw this as the suffering of the warrior-massiah, son of Joseph who will die. (B.T. Sukkah 52a).
Son of Joseph…You mean like Jesus was the son of Joseph? Still sounds like they are talking about the same person.
Apparently, when he returned as the 'comforter' he forgot to inform his followers of this, because even in John's visions, he continues to use the same rhetoric. He can't very well be talking about the quickness of his resurrection when he has already done so.
The ‘comforter’ was the Holy Spirit
Now you are getting it. The question is, who actually doctored the history? The original disciples, or a later authority that had come to power and murdered people like the original disciples?
Doctoring of history can only be done by those already in power, who have considerable control over the limited amount of historical material.
Ho…lee….crow…
Do you
really think like this? Is this what our educational system has produced?
You know, crop circles are hoaxes, there is no monster in Loch Ness and the Air Force is not hiding a space ship that crashed at Roswell.
Temple destroyed in 70AD, the earliest known gospels arrive some time after that. I do not know for certain if it was an after prophecy, but neither can you prove that it was a before-the-fact prophecy. At the very least, it weakens the power of the prophecy.
So if an event is predicted in the NT and happens you say “written after the fact”. If it is predicted in the NT and hasn’t yet happened you say “failure”.
Little question for you; considering the writers of the Gospels and Acts had no reluctance to make up prophecies and change events from Jesus’ life – heck, let’s just call a spade a spade – seeing as they were complete liars and scoundrels, why wouldn’t they have made up a bunch more “prophecies” of events that happened and been a bit more clear about them?
The NT scriptures. I do not have the verses handy, I have already provided some of Jesus's own rhetoric. From the disciples, off the top of my head, there is a suggestion that since the end-times are here, people who are not married should not do so. I can dig up the verse and others, but time constraints do not allow it at this time.
I have already told you that Jesus did not say they were in the “end-times” as in the “end of the world”. The event He was speaking about – ie, the Kingdom of God – was His resurrection and the new covenant.
As to the disciples
Power. Control. Simple enough reasons given the context of many competing religions. The competition was no less fierce in those days.
They received none of these things; they were killed. And do you really think you can compete with a religion that allows orgies by saying yours has a dead criminal who came back to life?
There are other reasons: mental illness or personality disorders. Someone may think he sees visions of God or angles and be driven by them.
Moses thought he heard God speaking through a burning bush, Paul though he heard God in the desert, Mohamed believed he was conversing with Gabriel, Rasputin saw Mary, Jim Jones... the list goes on.
Oh brother. Yeah, Rasputin and Jim Jones are good additions. Mohamed had no ulterior motive for saying “guess what God just told me…?”
So let me see if I understand you correctly, Christianity was founded by a group of madmen and lunatics who just happened to share the same madness and managed to convince thousands of others that it wasn’t madness but revelation?
I will retire to bedlam…
Whether or not these are genuine visions or hallucinations, they are enough to drive a person beyond rational inhibitions. And if this person happens to be charismatic, he will draw followers and convince them of his distortions with ease.
Yeah, of course, this happens all the time doesn’t it? Great religions are always springing up due to some charismatic nut case. They don’t crawl off somewhere and commit mass suicide, they don’t run into the desert and set up communes. No, the evangelize, write letters and histories so profound they change the planet.
So, I cannot explain the mechanics of how mental illness causes hallucinations and motivates people beyond rational thought, I cannot completely describe why apparently normal, honest people are drawn to people of such dispositions. All I know is that it happens. What remains is to put a name on the phenomenon.
I have name for what you have constructed here…sad.
Good grief man, your brain isn’t a chew toy, you only get one, don’t waste it. Disagree with Christianity if you want, be convinced that it is false, but for pete’s sake, do so using logic, reason and some thought.
Otherwise you will end up believing just about any pile of nonsense simply because it says what you want to hear. Its not too late, open a book and start reading.