Ken:
You have got to be kidding me. I posted my comments just yesterday, Saturday night (late), and already there is a write-up on them on a Christadelphian board? How things do fly in cyberspace.
As for the specifics of the response to my presentation, let me begin by quoting Gerd Theissen,
The Gospels in Context, pages 267-268:
Thus, Vespasian could be regarded in the East as a ruler who usurped messianic expectations and legitimated himself through prophets and miracles. It made no difference that he himself was a modest man. As a usurper, he had to rely on loud and vigorous propaganda. The warning against pseudo-messiahs in Mk 13:21-22 could have been formulated against the background of such a "propaganda campaign" for the victorious new emperor, who created peace by subduing the Jews and whose legitimacy was supported by signs and wonders....
The future expectations expressed in Mk. 13.14ff. can thus be located with ease in the circumstances around 70 C.E.
Theissen, a liberal scholar, is arguing (as quite a few other liberal scholars do) that
Mark 13.22 is a
vaticinium ex eventu, a prophecy made after the fact, and then placed fictitiously on the lips of Jesus some 40 years earlier. This is a clue that perhaps the author of your snippet (to which I cannot at present gain direct access, as I am not a member of that board) has missed something crucial in the argument. When secular scholars begin positing
vaticinia ex eventu, it is because they have difficulty imagining such a thing being predicted years in advance; it is not that the match is not tight enough, but rather that it is suspiciously
too tight (for those who do not believe in the possibility of predictive prophecy).
Now on to the specific comments (all emphases mine):
The article about Vespasian makes some very bad mistakes. For example, whilst is is correct that some Jews may have considered Vespasian to be the fulfillment of Daniel 9, it is totally incorrect in assuming that they thought he was the Messiah of Daniel 9.
My post nowhere
assumes that anybody thought of Vespasian as the
messiah. Since my argument depends on the comparison of two different passages, it was actually virtually impossible to merely
assume any connection. I had to
at least present the passages in tandem. And I did more than that.
It says this:
But what lifted them up especially toward the war was an ambiguous oracle likewise found in their sacred writings, as at that time someone from their country should rule the inhabited earth. This they took as belonging to their own house, and many of the wise men were misled in their judgment. But this oracle pointed to the leadership of Vespasian, who was appointed autocrat in Judea.
But this says nothing of the Messiah, nor that the Jews were interpreting this 'ambiguous oracle' as referring to Messiah.
I am uncertain from what perspective the author is writing here, Ken. Does this person (A) dispute that
Daniel 9.24-27 is messianic, or (B) dispute that the oracle mentioned in
Wars 6.312-313 is
Daniel 9.24-27? Or both?
Because
if Daniel 9.24-27 is messianic, and
if Josephus is referring to this particular scriptural oracle, then one would be hard pressed to deny that Josephus is calling Vespasian the
messiah. He says that the very individual that the Jews expected to come out of their own house (that is, from the Jewish race) and rule the earth was actually a Roman crowned on Jewish soil. If he is not identifying Vespasian with the
messiah, then who is he identifying him with?
And when Vespasian came along, they did not identify him as Messisah. Far to the contrary - they seem to be more afraid that he was the destroyer who makes desolate, which is precisely why they were afraid:
Which things a few drew upon with dread; in most there was a persuasion that there was contained in the ancient books of the priests that it would be at that very time that the Orient would grow strong and rulers of Judea would come into possession of the world. These ambiguous things had predicted Vespasian and Titus, but the common folk by their habit of human desire had interpreted such magnificence of fate of themselves, nor were converted to the truth even by disasters.
No sign whatever that people thought Vespasian was going to be the Messiah.
Look very carefully, Ken, at how this author has shifted the points of the argument.
First, who are the
they in that first sentence? Jews at large? I am not arguing that all Jews everywhere, or even most Jews, or even more than a handful of Jews (or even more than one!) believed that Vespasian was the
anointed one predicted in
Daniel 9.24-27.
Matthew 24.24 =
Mark 13.22 nowhere insists that all Jews everywhere, or even most Jews, or even more than a handful of Jews must actually believe in the false christs. All that the text requires is that a messianic
claim be made of somebody who works wonders. The last phrase of that verse, προς το αποπλαναν, ει δυνατον, τους εκλεκτους, does not imply that anybody (elect or otherwise) is
actually deceived. It is just προς with the infinitive, an ordinary NT expression of purpose (not result!).
In this case, of course, we do happen to know of at least one Jew who
was deceived: Josephus. But that is gravy.
Second, the author of this response says that Jews were afraid that Vespasian was the destroyer. That may well be. However, the text that he (or she?) cites does not exactly say that. In context, the fear is of the portents in Tacitus,
Histories 5.13.1:
There came forth prodigies, which this race, addicted to superstition, though against religiosities, does not have a law to propitiate either by sacrifices or by vows. There were seen in heaven forces rushing together, a reddening of arms, and the temple lit up by a fire coming down from the clouds. The doors of the shrine were suddenly opened, and a voice, greater than that of a human, was heard to say that the gods were departing. Simultaneously there was the unnatural movement of a departure.
Which things a few drew upon with dread; in most there was a persuasion that there was contained in the ancient letters of the priests that it would be at that very time that the Orient would grow strong....
Our author from that other board has the generic
they being afraid, and afraid (precisely) of Vespasian. The text itself, however, states explicitly that only a
few (
pauci) were afraid, and they were afraid of the portents (the doors of the temple opening of their own accord and so forth), and what they might mean for the fate of Jerusalem. But the
many (
pluribus) were
not afraid.
That said, I do not doubt that many, or at least some, Jews were afraid of Vespasian. But such a point is indifferent to my argument. All that we need to fulfill
Matthew 24.24 =
Mark 13.22 is a messianic claim for a wonder-worker. This is the crucial point that the author has missed. He seems to assume that a fulfillment requires a majority of Jews to actually be deceived by this false wonder-working
messiah, a supposition that he is reading into the text, not out of it.
The alleged wonders which Vespasian is supposed to have worked are equally weak:
Vespasian, the new emperor, having been raised unexpectedly from a low estate, wanted something which might clothe him with divine majesty and authority. This, likewise, was now added. A poor man who was blind, and another who was lame, came both together before him, when he was seated on the tribunal, imploring him to heal them, and saying that they were admonished in a dream by the god Serapis to seek his aid, who assured them that he would restore sight to the one by anointing his eyes with his spittle, and give strength to the leg of the other, if he vouchsafed but to touch it with his heel.
At first he could scarcely believe that the thing would anyhow succeed, and therefore hesitated to venture on making the experiment. At length, however, by the advice of his friends, he made the attempt publicly, in the presence of the assembled multitudes, and it was crowned with success in both cases. About the same time, at Tegea in Arcadia, by the direction of some soothsayers, several vessels of ancient workmanship were dug out of a consecrated place, on which there was an effigy resembling Vespasian.
Firstly we only have Suetonius' word for this (no other record of these events exists).
It is, of course, the case that we very
often have no other record than Suetonius, or than Tacitus, or than Josephus, for events. If the author wishes to argue that Suetonius is mistaken here, let us hear it.
Secondly, the very fact that Vespasian 'could scarely believe that the thing would anyhow succeed' makes it very clear that he was not doing this out of a desire to prove himself the Messiah - or even that he had any supernatural power.
Again, our verse does not in any way require that the messianic idea originate with the false
messiah himself. Our author is simply assuming such to be the case. (Besides, the reaction that Vespasian has toward Josephus indicates plainly enough that he has bought into the prediction.)
Josephus has painted Vespasian in messianic colors. That is all that the Olivet prediction requires.
Thirdly, miracles and wonders had been ascribed to Roman emperors before, this was nothing new.
This is quite true. Irrelevant to the argument on either side, but true indeed.
The argument ends rather pathetically with this...:
Pathetically? Must we resort to put-downs? I wrote what I wrote in the spirit of pursuit and common study. If I am mistaken, I certainly hope that the one who points out my mistake would do so in the same spirit.
Originally posted by Etcetera
Vespasian was, then, a (reluctant) false christ who (reluctantly) worked wonders.
Christ's words do not describe any reluctant false Christs, who reluctantly work wonders - quite the opposite.
The main point of contention, I think. Our author thinks that the words of Christ on Olivet insist on a gung-ho attitude for our false christ. Here is the verse again,
Matthew 24.24 =
Mark 13.22:
For there shall arise false christs and false prophets, and they shall give great signs and wonders so as to deceive, if possible, even the elect.
Is there anything in this verse that gives us a glimpse into the
mindset of the deceivers?
And as we have seen, Vespasian never presented himself, nor thought of himself, as Christ.
Josephus presented him, and thought of him, as the christ from
Daniel 9.24-27. Josephus applied a false messianic claim to Vespasian, and Vespasian bought it. And so did Tacitus (later on). They were convinced that the messianic prophecy of
Daniel 9.24-27 applied to Vespasian.
Josephus says:
A few years afterwards, under the reign of Nero, while Felix was procurator of Judea, impostors of this stamp were so frequent that some were taken and killed almost every day.
Antiquities, 20.8.4-5
Yes, it certainly sounds as if there was quite a
lot of false prophets or false christs in that time period. See
Matthew 24.5 =
Mark 13.6 =
Luke 21.8.
Is it possible, by the way, that our author has simply confused these last verses with the verses that I was actually addressing?
Matthew 24.5 and its parallels
do speak of self-conscious messianic claimants, the kind that proclaim openly:
I am the one, the kind that our modest emperor Vespasian does not
seem to have been. But these verses, which belong to the beginnings of the birth pangs (
Matthew 24.8 =
Mark 13.8b), when the end is not yet immediate (
Luke 21.9), do
not say that these particular christs will perform miracles. It is only during the great tribulation (
Matthew 24.21-22 =
Mark 13.19-20) that our texts mention false christs who work wonders... but they do
not state that these false christs will necessarily be self-conscious christs.
If the author that you cited did in fact confuse these verses, that would go a long way toward explaining the tack that he took in his argument.
Originally posted by Ken
Question:How long after the alledged "signs and wonders"/miracles were the events recorded for Vespasian?
The healings date to about 69 or 70. Suetonius wrote the
Life of Vespasian before 130.
I must confess that I still agree with Theissen that Vespasian is an elegant match with
Matthew 24.24 =
Mark 13.22, though I naturally disagree with him that it had to be written back onto the lips of Jesus some 40 years earlier.
In him.
Etcetera.
Post-script: Ken, I do not know if I addressed all of your misgivings. I do not know if you snipped that quote from the other board because you agreed with all of it, or only with some of it, or just wanted to see what I would make of it. What are
your thoughts on the issue?